Where did Latin go?

Everything globally seems to point to the language Latin. However it does not seem to be spoken anywhere except courts of law and churches. Why is this?

I’ve pointers to Romansh in Switzerland being the closest language.
A quote from Wikipedia (not a reference, only a pointer to possible references) :
“Romansh is one of the descendant languages of the spoken Latin language of the Roman Empire, which by the 5th century AD replaced the Celtic and Raetic languages previously spoken in the area.”


Recently I’ve more or less thrown out all the traditional English dictionaries in favour of Blacks legal dictionary 1st edition and 4th edition. Blacks is the main dictionary used by law students in Commonwealth countries. 1st Ed. also points out the legal dictionary of equivalency in many other non Commonwealth countries. The thing is that a huge chunk (possibly half) of the definitions are in Latin. Why?

Unless a mandate is gratuitous, it is not a man-
date. Dig. 17. 1. 1. 4; Inst. 3, 27; 1 Bouv.Inst. n.

Now this stands up in a court of law in Australia as long as you specify to the judge that you want to be judged under contract law (The JurisPrudence of Equity).

Why are none of us taught Latin if it underpins the structure of the laws we all live by?

Would that mean that we as men and women can not even understand the written laws of our land?

Why is Romansh still only existing in the canton of Grisons?

Why do the priests etc. of the churches and lawyers get taught Latin?

Why do the law students at the presentation of their degree in England have the whole presentation in Latin when the country is so proud about being the origin of English?

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